Cavalry Leaders Course Practice Test

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• Which statement best summarizes the purpose of security guidance provided by commanders?
• Which statement best describes the Execution Matrix?
• METT-TC (I) elements include all of the following except
• Which scenario best illustrates decisively engaged?
• What do bypass criteria specify?
• Which term describes the integration of one or more types of reconnaissance or surveillance systems to direct follow-on collecting of more detailed information by another system?
• The level of aggressiveness addresses the necessity to avoid either
• Route Reconnaissance is used to obtain detailed information of a specified route and all terrain from which the enemy could influence movement along that route.
• Area Recon is typically used when commanders have what level of understanding of the environment?
• What is a decision point in military planning?
• Which statement describes the second method for initiating movement in a Moving Flank Guard?
• How do recon and surveillance complement each other?
• Which asset does a CFZ aim to protect?
• Which MET-TTC (I) factor specifically covers information needs and management?
• What is a Contact Point?
• Which item is the first fundamental of security under PPPOM?
• Which term describes using two or more different capabilities to collect against the same information requirement?
• In RPOL, at the passage point, which statement is true?
• What is the purpose of a Restricted Operating Zone (ROZ)?
• Which elements comprise the Components of Commander's Intent?
• MDMP is defined as what?
• In area security tasks, screening is primarily used to provide what?
• In a ROZ entry, what parameter defines the lower altitude limit?
• In FPOL, the passage point is defined as which of the following?
• Commanders use reconnaissance pull when what conditions exist?
• Bypass criteria are
• What best defines the difference between Zone and Area Reconnaissance?
• What is the purpose of the Commander's Security Group (CSG)?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Reconnaissance Guidance?
• Disengagement criteria are protocols that specify circumstances under which a friendly force must break contact with direct fire and observed indirect fire to prevent decisive engagement.
• The Commanders Primary Tasks During the Operations Process, abbreviated LUVDAD, stand for which sequence?
• In the Commander's Intent, which term represents the desired final condition after mission success?
• Which statement accurately describes the relationship between EEFI and CCIR priority?
• Which reconnaissance method is described as emphasizing stealth and is chosen when no vehicles are available?
• Define Area Security
• Information Collection (Annex L) designates which shop as responsible?
• What is the difference between information and intelligence in military terms?
• Which statement accurately describes the overall purpose of reconnaissance in military operations?
• Who can conduct a Cover?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of guard?
• What is the primary purpose of the Cavalry Squadron?
• Which of the following is NOT a principle of Mission Command?
• When is Recon in Force used?
• Which items go into a ROZ entry?
• Which of the following is true about RPOL passage point?
• In IPOE planning, which step involves evaluating the threat?
• Which statement among the following is a fundamental of reconnaissance?
• Who can conduct Route Recon?
• Which statement best describes the difference between FPOL and RPOL passage points?
• Area Reconnaissance focuses on obtaining detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity within a prescribed area.
• Mounted reconnaissance is characterized by which of the following?
• Which option is a form of contact that uses electromagnetic means?
• EEI stands for which term?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of security operation?
• Disengagement criteria are protocols that specify those circumstances for breaking contact to prevent decisive engagement.
• Which document is cited in relation to PIR definitions in the material?
• Which field is NOT included in a ROZ entry?
• CRG explains
• What is the correct sequence for the SQDN CASEVAC flow?
• What is the purpose of Reconnaissance in Force?
• What is BHL?
• Which statement differentiates High-Value Target (HVT) from High-Payoff Target (HPT)?
• Area Reconnaissance focuses on obtaining detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity within a prescribed area.
• What is the purpose of a Named Area Of Interest (NAI)?
• Reconnaissance in Force is a type of reconnaissance operation that involves:
• Which PIR type relates to civilian populations and societal impacts?
• Which option correctly matches the concept with its description?
• In a ROZ entry, which field defines when the restricted airspace becomes active?
• Who can conduct a guard?
• Priority Intelligence Requirement (PIR) are tied to either an NAI or TAI.
• What does LTIOV stand for?
• Which item is included as a graphic control measure in area reconnaissance?
• Who typically conducts route classification?
• What are the two security durations?
• Which of the following is a reconnaissance type?
• Which form of contact relates to electromagnetic means?
• CCIR Components are which pair?
• What does BHO describe?
• Which of the following is NOT a PIR type?
• Zone Reconnaissance is best described as selecting a zone with defined boundaries to obtain detailed information on routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces.
• LTIOV is the primary planning factor when determining which aspect of recon tempo?
• Dismounted Recon is defined as which?
• How is surveillance distinct from reconnaissance?
• Which statement best defines RPOL?
• What is the first step of the MDMP?
• What is the primary use of the ACP?
• What best describes a cover operation?
• Which statement accurately describes the FPOL passage point?
• Commanders provide clear recon and security guidance that enables
• Who can conduct Recon in Force?
• Which statement best defines a CCIR?
• Which of the following is NOT a Reconnaissance Method mentioned?
• Which statement best describes a key aspect of Mission Command's execution?
• Which statement best describes the role of Arial recon?
• NAI stands for Named Area of Interest; TAI stands for Target Area of Interest.
• TAI stands for Target Area of Interest.
• Which plan is NOT required to be planned with a Recon in Force?
• The level of detail in CRG establishes the necessary number of tasks based on the amount of time available
• Which items go into an ACA entry?
• Which of the following is a recognized type of reconnaissance operation?
• In FPOL, what does the passage point mark?
• Which graphic control measure is listed for route reconnaissance?
• The DSM provides texts to recap which elements?
• When are Screen operations appropriate?
• Which area designation is the No Fire Area (NFA)?
• What are the three tasks for the lead element in a Moving Flank Guard?
• Reconnaissance guidance tempos determine the level of detail and aggressiveness, including whether the approach is stealthy or forceful and deliberate or rapid.
• Definition of a Screen?
• Engagement criteria are protocols that specify those circumstances for initiating engagement with an enemy force. They can either be restrictive or permissive.
• Commanders use reconnaissance push when they have what condition?
• In IPOE, which step involves describing the environmental effects on operations?
• The level of detail in CRG establishes the necessary number of tasks based on the amount of time available
• What is the primary role of the Advance Guard?
• Which item is listed as a graphic control measure for zone reconnaissance?
• What does the security focus define?
• Which statement best describes the Decision Support Matrix?
• Which criterion is associated with mounted reconnaissance?
• Which statement best defines Mission Command?
• Route Reconnaissance is used to obtain detailed information of a specified route and all terrain from which the enemy could influence movement along that route.
• Which items are listed as part of Information Collection (Annex L)?
• Which item is used as a graphic control measure in area reconnaissance?
• What does Call for Fire Zone (CFFZ) describe?
• Which acronym represents the guard tasks consisting of Recon, Attack, Defend, Delay, and Screen?
• Named Area Of Interest (NAI) is primarily used to collect information about what?
• Which Reconnaissance Method involves personnel moving on foot?
• Which of the following is NOT a consequence of commanders providing clear security guidance?
• Which item is a graphic control measure in route reconnaissance?
• What is the Engagement Area?
• Priority Intelligence Requirements are designed to help the commander understand the threat and other aspects of the operational environment.
• Which of the following is a degradation of Aerial Reconnaissance?
• A reconnaissance mission is defined by its
• Indicators are collected within NAIs or TAIs.
• Which form of contact is described as non-hostile observation without direct engagement?
• In RPOL, at the passage point, what is true?
• Who establishes an ACA?
• Which of the following best describes a Reconnaissance mission?
• Which area security task involves recon of the area, route, and zone?
• Which statement expresses a fundamental of reconnaissance regarding information reporting?
• What is the purpose of protecting EEFI?
• Reconnaissance tempo is defined as what?
• Which of the following is a PIR type?
• Every reconnaissance mission specifies a
• What is the Essential Element of Friendly Information (EEFI)?
• Which is a component of the AGADAP process?
• Recon Handover Line is best described as:
• DSM provides text to recap what?
• Which activity is described as passive, layered with technical capabilities and systems that collect information?
• Who can conduct Zone Recon?
• Zone Recon is most appropriate under which conditions?
• Which statement correctly describes FPOL?
• Which statement best defines the No Fire Area (NFA)?
• Which graphic control measure is included in the area reconnaissance set?
• Which element provides the link between sensors and reconnaissance operations?
• Which acronym stands for the categories of reconnaissance focus including Weather effects, Threat, Terrain, and Civil?
• In FPOL, which statement best describes the transition at the passage point?
• What is the security objective?
• What phrase best defines decisively engaged?
• Which condition best describes mounted reconnaissance planning when time is limited?
• Define a Cover
• Which term describes using two or more like capabilities to collect against the same information requirement?
• Which of the following is a component of Commanders Security Guidance?
• Which of the following is a step in the MDMP?
• Which item is included as a graphic control measure in area reconnaissance?
• Recon Handover is described as the action that occurs between two elements to coordinate the transfer of information and responsibility for observation of potential threat contact, or the transfer of an assigned area from one element to another. What is this called?
• High-Value Target (HVT) is defined as:
• Which MET-TTC (I) factor concerns the availability of troops and support?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of wargaming?
• High-Payoff Target (HPT) is defined as:
• Which of the following is a principle of Mission Command?
• Which statement best defines FPOL?
• Reconnaissance and surveillance are connected by which principle?
• Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Area Security?
• Who can conduct Area Recon?
• Reconnaissance guidance tempos specify the level of detail and aggressiveness, such as stealthy or forceful, and deliberate or rapid.
• FFIR stands for what, and what does it describe?
• What is a Target Area of Interest (TAI)?
• If the security force is overextended, which action is described?
• What element must a Brigade plan to retain when conducting a Cover?
• Mounted Recon is defined as which?
• ACA stands for what?
• Screen operations are used to provide early warning over gaps not considered critical enough to require security in greater strength. This is most likely to be employed when:
• In IPOE, which step involves defining the operational environment?
• Which statement describes one method to initiating movement in a Moving Flank Guard?
• Which information items are associated with PIRs (enemy, terrain, weather, civil considerations)?
• Definition of Reconnaissance
• Reconnaissance push refines which element to help finalize the plan?
• Which of the following is NOT a category of security focus?
• Which is a listed method of movement for a moving flank guard?
• Indicators are defined as items of information that reflect an enemy's intent or capability and are collected within NAIs or TAIs.
• What does Reconnaissance aim to obtain about the environment?
• Which graphic control measure is included in the route reconnaissance set?
• Decisively engaged means which of the following?
• Which statement about screens is true?
• SIR is used to facilitate tasking by matching requirements to asset capabilities. Which option best reflects this function?
• Which form of contact refers to observing a target using sight or sensors?
• Which criterion is associated with using dismounted reconnaissance?
• Which statement best contrasts FPOL and RPOL passage points?
• What defines a Gap in military terms?
• What is the main difference between security operations and reconnaissance operations?
• Which area security task focuses on protecting routes and their convoys?
• If a passage point is reached, what is true for the passing unit in FPOL?
• What best defines Surveillance in reconnaissance?
• Where can a screen not be conducted?
• What is an Air Corridor (AC) used for?
• What is the key distinction between zone and area reconnaissance?
• In the Moving Flank Guard, what is the Zone Recon tasked with?
• What is the goal of reconnaissance by fire?
• Which data elements belong in an Air Corridor (AC) entry?
• What is a Passage Lane?
• Which statement best describes ACP?
• In RPOL, what does the passage point mark?
• Which item is listed as a degradation of aerial reconnaissance?
• What is the primary purpose of Security Operations?
• Which is the final step of the MDMP?
• What data elements go into a PAA entry?
• What is the role of the Cavalry Squadron?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a form of contact (DINOCAVE-I)?
• Which area security task involves protecting High-Value Targets?
• Which description best defines a Critical Friendly Zone (CFZ)?
• Which units can conduct a screen?
• Zone Reconnaissance is defined as:
• What is the initial step in the AGADAP process?