Cavalry Leaders Course Practice Test

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• What is the Essential Element of Friendly Information (EEFI)?
• Who can conduct Zone Recon?
• TAI stands for Target Area of Interest.
• Which element provides the link between sensors and reconnaissance operations?
• Which of the following is a step in the MDMP?
• In RPOL, what does the passage point mark?
• Which term describes using two or more like capabilities to collect against the same information requirement?
• Which description best defines a Critical Friendly Zone (CFZ)?
• Which criterion is associated with using dismounted reconnaissance?
• What is the initial step in the AGADAP process?
• Screen operations are used to provide early warning over gaps not considered critical enough to require security in greater strength. This is most likely to be employed when:
• The level of aggressiveness addresses the necessity to avoid either
• Which is the final step of the MDMP?
• In FPOL, the passage point is defined as which of the following?
• What is the primary purpose of the Cavalry Squadron?
• Commanders use reconnaissance push when they have what condition?
• Which Reconnaissance Method involves personnel moving on foot?
• Which of the following is NOT a PIR type?
• Which items go into a ROZ entry?
• Which of the following is a degradation of Aerial Reconnaissance?
• Which MET-TTC (I) factor specifically covers information needs and management?
• Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Area Security?
• The DSM provides texts to recap which elements?
• Which statement among the following is a fundamental of reconnaissance?
• Which option correctly matches the concept with its description?
• Reconnaissance guidance tempos specify the level of detail and aggressiveness, such as stealthy or forceful, and deliberate or rapid.
• LTIOV is the primary planning factor when determining which aspect of recon tempo?
• Which statement best describes the Execution Matrix?
• In IPOE, which step involves describing the environmental effects on operations?
• METT-TC (I) elements include all of the following except
• Recon Handover is described as the action that occurs between two elements to coordinate the transfer of information and responsibility for observation of potential threat contact, or the transfer of an assigned area from one element to another. What is this called?
• Which item is used as a graphic control measure in area reconnaissance?
• Which units can conduct a screen?
• What is the purpose of protecting EEFI?
• What is the key distinction between zone and area reconnaissance?
• Route Reconnaissance is used to obtain detailed information of a specified route and all terrain from which the enemy could influence movement along that route.
• Which is a component of the AGADAP process?
• Bypass criteria are
• Which area security task involves protecting High-Value Targets?
• Which of the following is a PIR type?
• Definition of a Screen?
• Which graphic control measure is listed for route reconnaissance?
• Which statement best describes ACP?
• How do recon and surveillance complement each other?
• NAI stands for Named Area of Interest; TAI stands for Target Area of Interest.
• What do bypass criteria specify?
• Named Area Of Interest (NAI) is primarily used to collect information about what?
• EEI stands for which term?
• High-Value Target (HVT) is defined as:
• Which scenario best illustrates decisively engaged?
• Which of the following is NOT a consequence of commanders providing clear security guidance?
• The level of detail in CRG establishes the necessary number of tasks based on the amount of time available
• MDMP is defined as what?
• CRG explains
• Every reconnaissance mission specifies a
• Reconnaissance tempo is defined as what?
• Priority Intelligence Requirements are designed to help the commander understand the threat and other aspects of the operational environment.
• What is the correct sequence for the SQDN CASEVAC flow?
• What best defines Surveillance in reconnaissance?
• Which term describes the integration of one or more types of reconnaissance or surveillance systems to direct follow-on collecting of more detailed information by another system?
• Commanders use reconnaissance pull when what conditions exist?
• In a ROZ entry, what parameter defines the lower altitude limit?
• What is BHL?
• Which area security task involves recon of the area, route, and zone?
• Which of the following is true about RPOL passage point?
• What phrase best defines decisively engaged?
• Dismounted Recon is defined as which?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of guard?
• What is a Contact Point?
• What best defines the difference between Zone and Area Reconnaissance?
• Commanders provide clear recon and security guidance that enables
• In IPOE, which step involves defining the operational environment?
• What is the purpose of the Commander's Security Group (CSG)?
• Which statement best defines a CCIR?
• Area Recon is typically used when commanders have what level of understanding of the environment?
• Recon Handover Line is best described as:
• What is the goal of reconnaissance by fire?
• Which item is listed as a degradation of aerial reconnaissance?
• In the Moving Flank Guard, what is the Zone Recon tasked with?
• DSM provides text to recap what?
• Who can conduct a Cover?
• Zone Reconnaissance is best described as selecting a zone with defined boundaries to obtain detailed information on routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces.
• Reconnaissance and surveillance are connected by which principle?
• Which term describes using two or more different capabilities to collect against the same information requirement?
• ACA stands for what?
• What is the first step of the MDMP?
• Which statement best defines RPOL?
• Mounted Recon is defined as which?
• In the Commander's Intent, which term represents the desired final condition after mission success?
• SIR is used to facilitate tasking by matching requirements to asset capabilities. Which option best reflects this function?
• Which item is the first fundamental of security under PPPOM?
• The Commanders Primary Tasks During the Operations Process, abbreviated LUVDAD, stand for which sequence?
• What does BHO describe?
• Information Collection (Annex L) designates which shop as responsible?
• Which statement describes one method to initiating movement in a Moving Flank Guard?
• In area security tasks, screening is primarily used to provide what?
• What is a decision point in military planning?
• What defines a Gap in military terms?
• Priority Intelligence Requirement (PIR) are tied to either an NAI or TAI.
• What is a Passage Lane?
• Which area security task focuses on protecting routes and their convoys?
• What is the difference between information and intelligence in military terms?
• Who can conduct Area Recon?
• Which statement accurately describes the overall purpose of reconnaissance in military operations?
• Which statement best summarizes the purpose of security guidance provided by commanders?
• Mounted reconnaissance is characterized by which of the following?
• Reconnaissance guidance tempos determine the level of detail and aggressiveness, including whether the approach is stealthy or forceful and deliberate or rapid.
• FFIR stands for what, and what does it describe?
• Which of the following is a reconnaissance type?
• Define a Cover
• Which items are listed as part of Information Collection (Annex L)?
• Which elements comprise the Components of Commander's Intent?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a form of contact (DINOCAVE-I)?
• Definition of Reconnaissance
• What is the primary use of the ACP?
• What is the purpose of a Named Area Of Interest (NAI)?
• Which activity is described as passive, layered with technical capabilities and systems that collect information?
• What is the Engagement Area?
• What is an Air Corridor (AC) used for?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of wargaming?
• Reconnaissance in Force is a type of reconnaissance operation that involves:
• Which form of contact is described as non-hostile observation without direct engagement?
• Route Reconnaissance is used to obtain detailed information of a specified route and all terrain from which the enemy could influence movement along that route.
• Area Reconnaissance focuses on obtaining detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity within a prescribed area.
• What is the purpose of a Restricted Operating Zone (ROZ)?
• Which statement best defines FPOL?
• In RPOL, at the passage point, what is true?
• Which statement correctly describes FPOL?
• Which graphic control measure is included in the route reconnaissance set?
• What element must a Brigade plan to retain when conducting a Cover?
• What does Call for Fire Zone (CFFZ) describe?
• Which statement best contrasts FPOL and RPOL passage points?
• What data elements go into a PAA entry?
• Which asset does a CFZ aim to protect?
• What does Reconnaissance aim to obtain about the environment?
• Which statement accurately describes the relationship between EEFI and CCIR priority?
• Which MET-TTC (I) factor concerns the availability of troops and support?
• Which statement best defines Mission Command?
• What are the two security durations?
• What is the role of the Cavalry Squadron?
• Which statement expresses a fundamental of reconnaissance regarding information reporting?
• Which acronym represents the guard tasks consisting of Recon, Attack, Defend, Delay, and Screen?
• Which of the following best describes a Reconnaissance mission?
• What is the primary purpose of Security Operations?
• Which of the following is a recognized type of reconnaissance operation?
• Which reconnaissance method is described as emphasizing stealth and is chosen when no vehicles are available?
• Define Area Security
• Which of the following is NOT a category of security focus?
• In FPOL, what does the passage point mark?
• Which item is listed as a graphic control measure for zone reconnaissance?
• Area Reconnaissance focuses on obtaining detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity within a prescribed area.
• Which of the following is NOT a principle of Mission Command?
• What does the security focus define?
• Which statement differentiates High-Value Target (HVT) from High-Payoff Target (HPT)?
• Which statement accurately describes the FPOL passage point?
• Which of the following is NOT a Reconnaissance Method mentioned?
• When are Screen operations appropriate?
• Which statement best describes the difference between FPOL and RPOL passage points?
• Who can conduct Recon in Force?
• Which plan is NOT required to be planned with a Recon in Force?
• Which data elements belong in an Air Corridor (AC) entry?
• Which of the following is a principle of Mission Command?
• What is the security objective?
• In IPOE planning, which step involves evaluating the threat?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Reconnaissance Guidance?
• If the security force is overextended, which action is described?
• Which form of contact relates to electromagnetic means?
• Disengagement criteria are protocols that specify circumstances under which a friendly force must break contact with direct fire and observed indirect fire to prevent decisive engagement.
• Which statement describes the second method for initiating movement in a Moving Flank Guard?
• Which graphic control measure is included in the area reconnaissance set?
• Which items go into an ACA entry?
• Zone Reconnaissance is defined as:
• Which document is cited in relation to PIR definitions in the material?
• The level of detail in CRG establishes the necessary number of tasks based on the amount of time available
• When is Recon in Force used?
• Who establishes an ACA?
• Which criterion is associated with mounted reconnaissance?
• In FPOL, which statement best describes the transition at the passage point?
• High-Payoff Target (HPT) is defined as:
• What is the primary role of the Advance Guard?
• What does LTIOV stand for?
• What best describes a cover operation?
• Which condition best describes mounted reconnaissance planning when time is limited?
• Indicators are collected within NAIs or TAIs.
• Which field is NOT included in a ROZ entry?
• Which form of contact refers to observing a target using sight or sensors?
• Who can conduct a guard?
• Which of the following is a component of Commanders Security Guidance?
• Which statement about screens is true?
• Which option is a form of contact that uses electromagnetic means?
• Who can conduct Route Recon?
• Reconnaissance push refines which element to help finalize the plan?
• If a passage point is reached, what is true for the passing unit in FPOL?
• Who typically conducts route classification?
• Which statement best describes a key aspect of Mission Command's execution?
• Which item is included as a graphic control measure in area reconnaissance?
• Disengagement criteria are protocols that specify those circumstances for breaking contact to prevent decisive engagement.
• What is the purpose of Reconnaissance in Force?
• Which information items are associated with PIRs (enemy, terrain, weather, civil considerations)?
• Which PIR type relates to civilian populations and societal impacts?
• Which statement best describes the Decision Support Matrix?
• What is a Target Area of Interest (TAI)?
• Which area designation is the No Fire Area (NFA)?
• Which item is a graphic control measure in route reconnaissance?
• How is surveillance distinct from reconnaissance?
• Zone Recon is most appropriate under which conditions?
• What are the three tasks for the lead element in a Moving Flank Guard?
• Decisively engaged means which of the following?
• Which statement best describes the role of Arial recon?
• What is the main difference between security operations and reconnaissance operations?
• Indicators are defined as items of information that reflect an enemy's intent or capability and are collected within NAIs or TAIs.
• CCIR Components are which pair?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of security operation?
• A reconnaissance mission is defined by its
• Engagement criteria are protocols that specify those circumstances for initiating engagement with an enemy force. They can either be restrictive or permissive.
• Which item is included as a graphic control measure in area reconnaissance?
• Which statement best defines the No Fire Area (NFA)?
• Where can a screen not be conducted?
• In a ROZ entry, which field defines when the restricted airspace becomes active?
• Which is a listed method of movement for a moving flank guard?
• In RPOL, at the passage point, which statement is true?
• Which acronym stands for the categories of reconnaissance focus including Weather effects, Threat, Terrain, and Civil?